My Sins? Am I redeemed?

I don't mean to troll. I honestly and sincerely don't, but i have to ask.
Can ANYONE explain the true meaning of Good Friday to me.

Now don't get me wrong, I was born a Christian and am quite the bible scholar, so I know the historical record of what happened (as the Bible records it) but what i cannot seem to come to terms with, is pretty elemental.

Let us for a minute separate the old testament from the New testament, you know, to get all the looting, homicide and infanticide out of the way.
Now, the records say, Jesus died on the cross to for our sins or well, the Church sure interprets it that way right? Died for my sins and the sins of Mankind, but wait, wasn't there a clause by him earlier, stating something along the lines of "Do not judge lest ye be judged"? Does not him dying for my sins also mean him calling me a sinner first? Is he able to cast the first proverbial stone because he himself is free from sin? Isn't that tad petty for the Son of God?

But that is just one side of this ill fated event.

What real world implications did that one event have. He died for the sins of mankind.
Does that absolve me from going to Hell? The Church says NO.
Does this mean that the souls in hell up to that point in history were set free and taken in to heaven? This would mean Genghis Khan now lives next to St. Francis Xavier (and if you are a history buff, you already know they both probably are neighbors right now too). The Church says NO here too.
In a fit of sheer desperation, I ask, does this mean that original sin was absolved? NO!

I as a rational human admit to being a bit confused about this whole ordeal.

If you amputate the "spiritual" portions of this whole event which require faith, what REALLY did him dying on the cross achieve? What ultimate purpose does it solve?

The only thing I could think of, was it was compulsory for it to happen to satisfy scripture. For it was written that a human would be born of virgin womb, greater than a prophet, the savior of this world. He would absolve the sins of Mankind and generally set things right. This scripture was then again received through a series of visions to earlier prophets, whether Jew, Muslim or Christian. This would imply, with horrific ramifications that God desired his Son (who wasn't born yet) to be born and to die, even though in his infinite knowledge, would know that it would serve no real purpose, because what transpired in the subsequent millennium is now known as the dark ages of the Church.


So I honestly implore you, if you have a deeper understanding of this subject, please educate me, mail me if you must! I'm all ears to a different opinion.